Outlaws Have No Right to Make War

Some recent images of Iran's advanced domestically produced "Karrar" Main  Battle Tank. It incorperates elements of the T-90, M1 Abrams and Challenger  2 tanks, and in terms of performance it is similar

Among my studies in college was two semesters on international law: so I know what I’m talking about.

You can’t have international law without nations; and for the law’s purpose, this means states: organized political entities. And the law says that states have a right, under certain circumstances, to make war–subject to various limitations on how the war is waged, and why. There is a right to self-defense, but not a right to conquest. And the rules of warfare are established among states agreeing as to what those rules are.

None of this applies to terrorist organizations. They are outlaws, in the literal sense of the word. Face-to-face, cold-blooded murder of noncombatants is not allowed.

In World War II the Axis powers freely violated all international law applying to the conduct of a war. The leaders of those states were punished after the war, many of them put to death. The laws were strengthened.

Hamas–which is not a state, and has not signed any of the international conventions regarding the rules of war–whose “fighters” have openly committed war crimes–has placed itself outside the laws of nations. Its invasion of Israel, and the conduct of its personnel in Israel, cannot be defended. International law has failed to restrain Hamas. For all its supposed value, the law is only as effective as the nations’ commitment to enforce it.

Which doesn’t seem all that credible, does it?

 

What If…? (Pure Speculation)

The Supreme Court building, Poland

Just sayin’, okay? But once upon a time I studied international law in college: so I know that cases come up sometimes that have political ramifications for a third party not directly involved in the case.

And remember how lib judges on our Supreme Court trotted out foreign court decisions every chance they got? Hold that thought, as I present a hypothetical situation.

Smith sues Jones in Poland, and the case works its way up to Poland’s Supreme Court. Jones’ defense is that he is not liable (for whatever) because the 2020 elections in the United States were rife with fraud.

What if the Polish court rules in Jones’ favor? They would have to make a public statement, in a court ruling, that America’s presidential election was a scam. The ruling would have no legal effect within the United States, but it would certainly be a milestone on the highway of history.

Think the libs’d want to trot out that foreign court decision as a precedent?

I’m not predicting this will happen. But it could.